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Premarital Property Problem

Hi: I've been married for approximately 9 months and my husband and I have reached the conclusion we should divorce. The catch is he keeps threatening he's going to make me sell the house to get half of the proceeds. He seems to believe he's entitled to it. Here's the story about the house. I purchased it prior to our marriage on December, 2016 from the estate of my decease mother by buying out my 2 siblings. My husband didn't provide anything financially to the purchase of the house and isn't on the title or deed. What he DID do was contribute to a couple of the household bills and for 4 months beginning Sept/Oct, 2017 paid $500 towards the mortgage until February, 2018 when I had it adjusted because of my tax exception. The only reason he was able to make those payments was because he was declared disabled Sept/2017 and started to receive payments. From December, 2016 I paid the entire mortgage and the majority of the large household bills and am now back to that status because he's refusing to contribute anything to the mortgage now.

As far as I'm concerned, if I could get the marriage annulled, I would but I don't believe I qualify. He insist that he's going to make me sell the house. However, I don't believe we've been married long enough nor has he made substantial contributions to anything related to the home or property to merit him being entitle to proceeds from a sale - especially considering for 9 months after I bought the house, he didn't pay a dime towards anything . I don't know that I can afford a lawyer to handle this, so I'm looking for some advice as to whether he really has any standing to force me to sell.

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