I will be grateful for any advice on my situation. I recently bought a car from a local guy who's registered as a dealer - he buys cars at the auction and then sells them. He provided me with a title, RMV-1 form and a sort of a bill of sale (though it was written by hand). However, when I tried to register the car, the RMV refused because it turned out that he didn't sign the back of the title and also didn't complete the last section which transfers the ownership to me. I'm not experienced in car registration, so I believed him when he said that I'm all set with this set of documents. Especially as he's a dealer and should know what documents are needed.
Immediately after leaving the RMV I texted him and asked to meet because otherwise I can't register the car. However, instead of helping he texted me back that he's out of state now, that I should just "copy his signature" or make the RMV "call him directly with questions". I replied that I don't want to serve time in jail for forging a signature on a title, and of course, the RMV won't be calling him, they need a signature!
And no one knows when he's going to return, I hope soon, but I texted him asking when he's going to be back and so far he didn't reply...
So here's my question: basically, he now left me with a car which I'm unable to register and drive. It's just my luck that I haven't sold my old truck yet, otherwise I would have been left without a means to get to work. So I wanted to ask: in case he's trying to avoid me once I bought this car from him, can I have the law on him (report him to the police, etc.) or not? I repeat, the bottom line is: he sold me a car with an incorrect set of documents which doesn't let me register it. That's certainly not a good practice.
I will be grateful for any advice. Thank you.