If a bank attempts to cash a check without a signature, or the correct recipient, is this considered fraud?
Let me explain a little, I pay a weekly fee to a group, lets call them FCM, and the place they reside is BL, now I went there ages ago under another group, and I was told that to write a check for the group it needs to be written out to BL, but now I am being told that the checks are to be made out to FCM.
Here comes my problem, a few weeks ago, a check was written but no signature was given, on said check, and the bank that BL uses lets call them B14 for now, said that I didn't have enough funds in the account to pay said check.
So I contact my bank, and they said the check never should of been allowed because the check itself had no signature, and after a little more looking into it, the check written out to FCM never should of cleared anyway because it should of been written out to BL instead.
I was told that the B14 has potentially committed fraud. Is my bank correct, has B14 really committed fraud?