Hi,the story goes like this.....
A blood related relative was living in my parent's house for many years. while living at my parent's house, my parents never asked this relative for rent, since this person was family. Instead of living at the house for free, this person did offered to help pay monthly mortgages. Each month, this person would give my parents a check of $1,000-$1,300, which was equivalent to a monthly rent. Then my parents would pay the mortgage-loans using their own personal checks; and this went on for 6-7 years.
Anyhow, years down the road, this same relative is now trying to use the argument that he/she once helped paid for mortgages. This relative is seek partial-ownership of the real estate property from my parents, now that the mortgage-loans have been paid off.
This is really unlawful!! Is this even possible, any thoughts?