MLS listing expires, then offer accepted from third party - required to pay commish to listing broker?
My house has been on MLS for a number of months and is due to expire soon. I've been contacted by a neighbor who has expressed interest in buying my home, but without involving the broker in the process. My questions:
1. Am I legally bound to pay commission to the broker once the listing with the broker on MLS expires?
2. I feel my broker has done a decent job trying to market and sell my home. Wondering if others in this circumstance have come to some agreement with their former broker to perhaps pay their 1/2 (2.5%) of the commission to honor their commitment to the process? Or maybe some lesser amount, i.e. 2%? 1.5%?
Since no other broker brought his buyer to me, I feel morally ok with only paying out 2.5% instead of the typical 5% for both sides of the transaction - but I'm trying to understand the legal consequences of the above.
Thanks for any insights/advice you can offer.
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Editor's Response
I'm not going to offer an opinion on this one, other than to recommend that you talk to a MA real estate attorney before trying to keep all or part of the commission for yourself. There are at least a couple of issue here. I assume you have an exclusive listing with the broker? If so, what you are trying to do is delay the sale until after the listing expires. Even if you can get around that one, the agent/broker could try to argue that you discovered this buyer through his/her efforts and, accordingly, she is entitled to a commission even though the agreement has expired. Her efforts need not be something as obvious as showing your house to the neighbor. What about open houses? What about the sign she posted on your lawn?
Reply from initial poster
Thanks for both of your replies. I'm confused by your responses, however. As I understand it, I'm contracted with my broker - and will pay him 2.5% of the purchase price of the house, should a transaction close. The neighbor in question is not represented by a broker. What I asked about was keeping my broker "whole" by essentially paying him the 2.5% he would have received (or some other agreed upon amount, asked for opinions on that). Not sure why you perceive that's tantamount to avoiding paying my broker? My thought was that there was no representation on the buyer's side, hence I could pay my broker his portion of the commission, thereby acknowledging him and paying him for his efforts. What am I missing?
Thanks in advance for your thoughts.
Editor's Response
Your broker may feel, rightly or wrongly, that he is entitled to 5%, not 2.5%, as stipulated in your agreement. He may argue that he brought the buyer to you and is, therefore, entitled to his commission.
Perhaps I
Perhaps I misunderstood.
Again, I should refer you to your listing contract. Often a listing taken for 5% would offer an incentive (let's say 2.5%) to a cooperating broker. That is the prerogative of the listing broker to offer from their 5% of proceeds. Generally, your agreement, unless otherwise stated, is to pay the broker 5%. Then the broker, not the seller, pays the cooperating broker. If a buyer comes without representation, the broker is entitled to the entire 5%.
As a real estate salesperson
As a real estate salesperson licensed in the Commonwealth, I would likely pursue a commission under these circumstances. It is obvious by your post that it is your intention to circumvent the payment of commission although the buyer was presented during your listing agreement. In fact, I suggest that you review your listing contract. It may contain verbiage that requires you to refer any prospective buyers to your listing agent. Further, I believe you may have difficulty making the case that the sale was not a result of your agent's efforts, especially if your neighbor came forward after a yard sign was posted.