If a Right of First Refusal is added as an amendment to a condominium associations documents/by laws does that make the ROFR a servitude that can survive a Tax Foreclosure as the ROFR at that point runs with the land as part of the association?
The basic question is if a town forecloses on a condo and the association has recorded in it's by laws a right of first refusal does the town upon taking the property have to adhere to that ROFR when they sell the property?
Any thoughts would be appreciated.
Thanks
