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If a Right of First Refusal is added as an amendment to a condominium associations documents/by laws does that make the ROFR a servitude that can survive a Tax Foreclosure as the ROFR at that point runs with the land as part of the association?

The basic question is if a town forecloses on a condo and the association has recorded in it's by laws a right of first refusal does the town upon taking the property have to adhere to that ROFR when they sell the property?

Any thoughts would be appreciated.

Thanks

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